Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
15.06.2025 06:26
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Does the Hamas charter specifically call for the death of all Jews and the destruction of Israel?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
What's your take on Eternal Sunshine of the Spotless Mind? How has it affected you?
There's no rule.